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To be eligible for the CISM certification, candidates must have at least five years of experience in information security, with at least three years of experience in information security management. They must also adhere to the ISACA Code of Ethics and pass the CISM certification exam. CISM exam consists of 150 multiple-choice questions and is four hours long. Candidates must achieve a score of at least 450 out of a possible 800 to pass the exam and obtain the CISM certification.
The CISM certification is suitable for professionals who are responsible for managing, designing, overseeing, and assessing an organization’s information security. Certified Information Security Manager certification ensures that these professionals have the skills and knowledge necessary to develop and implement effective security policies and procedures, identify and manage risks, and manage incident responses in the event of a security breach.
The benefits of obtaining the CISM certification are numerous. It demonstrates to employers and clients that the individual has the necessary skills and knowledge to manage and oversee information security programs effectively. It also provides a competitive advantage in the job market, as many organizations prefer to hire certified professionals. Additionally, the certification provides access to a global network of professionals and resources, helping individuals to stay up-to-date with the latest trends and best practices in the industry.
NEW QUESTION # 589
Which of the following events generally has the highest information security impact?
- A. Opening a new office
- B. Rewiring the network
- C. Relocating the data center
- D. Merging with another organization
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Merging with or acquiring another organization causes a major impact on an information security management function because new vulnerabilities and risks are inherited. Opening a new office, moving the data center to a new site, or rewiring a network may have information security risks, but generally comply with corporate security policy and are easier to secure.
NEW QUESTION # 590
Which of the following will provide the MOST accurate test results for a disaster recovery plan (DRP)?
- A. Parallel test
- B. Structured walk-through
- C. Simulation test
- D. Full interruption test
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 591
An organization is performing due diligence when selecting a third party. Which of the following is MOST helpful to reduce the risk of unauthorized sharing of information during this process?
- A. Requiring third-party privacy policies
- B. Using secure communication channels
- C. Establishing mutual non-disclosure agreements (NDAs)
- D. Obtaining industry references
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The best option to reduce the risk of unauthorized sharing of information during the due diligence process is B.
Establishing mutual non-disclosure agreements (NDAs). This is because NDAs are legal contracts that bind the parties to keep confidential any information that is exchanged or disclosed during the due diligence process. NDAs can help to protect the sensitive data, intellectual property, trade secrets, or business strategies of both the organization and the third party from being leaked, stolen, or misused by unauthorized parties.
NDAs can also specify the terms and conditions for the use, storage, and disposal of the information, as well as the consequences for breaching the agreement.
References = CISM Review Manual 15th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.1, page 1341; CISM Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual 9th Edition, Question 70, page 18
NEW QUESTION # 592
Which of the following should be an information security manager's FIRST course of action when a potential business breach is discovered in a critical business system?
- A. Inform senior management of the breach.
- B. Validate the breach.
- C. Implement mitigating actions immediately.
- D. Invoke the incident response plan.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The first step when a potential breach is discovered is to validate the breach. According to the CISM Review Manual, Domain 4, the information security manager must confirm the event to avoid unnecessary escalation or resource allocation. This validation ensures that the incident is real and justifies further response actions. Invoking the incident response plan or informing management comes after the breach is validated.
Reference:ISACA CISM Review Manual, 16th Edition, Page 280, "Incident Detection and Validation".
NEW QUESTION # 593
An organization is planning to outsource the execution of its disaster recovery activities. Which of the following would be MOST important to include in the outsourcing agreement?
- A. Requirements for regularly testing backups
- B. Definition of when a disaster should be declared
- C. The disaster recovery communication plan
- D. Recovery time objectives (RTOs)
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 594
An organization has introduced a new bring your own device (BYOD) program. The security manager has determined that a small number of employees are utilizing free cloud storage services to store company data through their mobile devices. Which of the following is the MOST effective course of action?
- A. Allow the practice to continue temporarily for monitoring purposes.
- B. Assess the business need to provide a secure solution
- C. Disable the employees' remote access to company email and data
- D. Initiate remote wipe of the devices
Answer: B
Explanation:
The most effective course of action when employees are using free cloud storage services to store company data through their mobile devices is to assess the business need to provide a secure solution, such as a corporate-approved cloud service or a virtual desktop environment. Assessing the business need can help understand why employees are using free cloud storage services, what kind of data they are storing, and what are the security risks and requirements. Based on the assessment, the security manager can propose a secure solution that meets the business needs and complies with the BYOD policy. The other options, such as allowing the practice to continue, disabling remote access, or initiating remote wipe, may not address the underlying business need or may cause disruption or data loss. Reference:
https://www.digitalguardian.com/blog/byod-security-expert-tips-policy-mitigating-risks-preventing-breach
https://news.microsoft.com/en-xm/2021/03/18/how-to-have-secure-remote-working-with-a-byod-policy/
https://www.trendmicro.com/vinfo/us/security/news/cybercrime-and-digital-threats/-infosec-guide-bring-your-own-device-byod
NEW QUESTION # 595
The MOST important reason that statistical anomaly-based intrusion detection systems (slat IDSs) are less commonly used than signature-based IDSs, is that stat IDSs:
- A. cannot detect new types of attacks.
- B. generate false alarms from varying user or system actions.
- C. create more overhead than signature-based IDSs.
- D. cause false positives from minor changes to system variables.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
A statistical anomaly-based intrusion detection system (stat IDS) collects data from normal traffic and establishes a baseline. It then periodically samples the network activity based on statistical methods and compares samples to the baseline. When the activity is outside the baseline parameter (clipping level), the IDS notifies the administrator. The baseline variables can include a host's memory or central processing unit (CPU) usage, network packet types and packet quantities. If actions of the users or the systems on the network vary widely with periods of low activity and periods of frantic packet exchange, a stat IDS may not be suitable, as the dramatic swing from one level to another almost certainly will generate false alarms. This weakness will have the largest impact on the operation of the IT systems. Due to the nature of stat IDS operations (i.e., they must constantly attempt to match patterns of activity to the baseline parameters), a stat IDS requires much more overhead and processing than signature-based versions. Due to the nature of a stat IDS - based on statistics and comparing data with baseline parameters - this type of IDS may not detect minor changes to system variables and may generate many false positives. Choice D is incorrect; since the stat IDS can monitor multiple system variables, it can detect new types of variables by tracing for abnormal activity of any kind.
NEW QUESTION # 596
An information security manager has discovered a potential security breach in a server that supports a critical business process. Which of the following should be the information security manager's FIRST course of action?
- A. Inform senior management of the incident.
- B. Validate that there has been an incident.
- C. Shut down the server in an organized manner.
- D. Notify the business process owner.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: MIXED QUESTIONS
NEW QUESTION # 597
Which of the following is the FIRST step to establishing an effective information security program?
- A. Create a business case.
- B. Conduct a compliance review.
- C. Perform a business impact analysis (BIA).
- D. Assign accountability.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 598
Which of the following is the MOST important requirement for setting up an information security infrastructure for a new system?
- A. Basing the information security infrastructure on risk assessment
- B. Performing a business impact analysis (BIA)
- C. Initiating IT security training and familiarization
- D. Considering personal information devices as pan of the security policy
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The information security infrastructure should be based on risk. While considering personal information devices as part of the security policy may be a consideration, it is not the most important requirement. A BIA is typically carried out to prioritize business processes as part of a business continuity plan. Initiating IT security training may not be important for the purpose of the information security infrastructure.
NEW QUESTION # 599
The PRIMARY advantage of performing black-box control tests as opposed to white-box control tests is that they:
- A. identify more threats
- B. simulate real-world attacks
- C. cause fewer potential production issues
- D. require less IT staff preparation
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 600
Which of the following is the BEST method to securely transfer a message?
- A. Using public key infrastructure (PKI) encryption
- B. Password-protected removable media
- C. Steganography
- D. Facsimile transmission in a secured room
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Using public key infrastructure (PKI) is currently accepted as the most secure method to transmit e-mail messages. PKI assures confidentiality, integrity and nonrepudiation. The other choices are not methods that are as secure as PKI. Steganography involves hiding a message in an image.
NEW QUESTION # 601
To ensure IT equipment meets organizational security standards, the MOST efficient approach is to:
- A. develop an approved equipment list.
- B. ensure compliance during user acceptance testing.
- C. assess security during equipment deployment.
- D. assess the risks of all new equipment.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: INFORMATION SECURITY PROGRAM MANAGEMENT
NEW QUESTION # 602
An information security manager has been asked to determine whether an information security initiative has reduced risk to an acceptable level. Which of the following activities would provide the BEST information for the information security manager to draw a conclusion?
- A. Reviewing the risk register
- B. Initiating a cost-benefit analysis of the implemented controls
- C. Conducting a business impact analysis (BIA)
- D. Performing a risk assessment
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 603
While classifying information assets an information security manager notices that several production databases do not have owners assigned to them What is the BEST way to address this situation?
- A. Assign responsibility to the database administrator (DBA).
- B. Review the databases for sensitive content.
- C. Prepare a report of the databases for senior management.
- D. Assign the highest classification level to those databases.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The best way to address this situation is to assign responsibility to the database administrator (DBA). The DBA should review the databases for sensitive content and assign the appropriate classification level to each database. This should be done in accordance with the organization's information security policies, which should outline the rules and guidelines for classifying information assets. Additionally, the information security manager should prepare a report of the databases for senior management, noting the databases that do not have owners assigned to them, as well as any other relevant information. This will help to ensure that the organization is properly managing its information assets and that any risks associated with the lack of owners are identified and addressed. This information can be found in the ISACA's Certified Information Security Manager (CISM) Study Manual, Section 5.3.
NEW QUESTION # 604
The PRIMARY purpose of aligning information security with corporate governance objectives is to:
- A. re-align roles and responsibilities.
- B. build capabilities to improve security processes
- C. identity an organization s tolerance for risk
- D. consistently manage significant areas of risk.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 605
An information security manager learns that a departmental system is out of compliance with the information security policy's authentication requirements. Which of the following should be the information security manager's FIRST course of action?
- A. Request risk acceptance from senior management.
- B. Submit the issue to the steering committee for escalation.
- C. Conduct an impact analysis to quantify the associated risk
- D. Isolate the noncompliant system from the rest of the network.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 606
Which of the following is MOST helpful for protecting an enterprise from advanced persistent threats (APTs)?
- A. Regular antivirus updates
- B. Defined security standards
- C. Updated security policies
- D. Threat intelligence
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 607
Which of the following should be the FIRST step in patch management procedures when receiving an emergency security patch?
- A. Schedule patching based on the criticality.
- B. Install the patch immediately to eliminate the vulnerability.
- C. Conduct comprehensive testing of the patch.
- D. Validate the authenticity of the patch.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Validating the authenticity of the patch is the first step in patch management procedures when receiving an emergency security patch, as it helps to ensure that the patch is genuine and not malicious. Validating the authenticity of the patch can be done by verifying the source, signature, checksum, or certificate of the patch, and comparing it with the information provided by the software vendor or manufacturer. Installing an unverified patch may introduce malware, compromise the system, or cause unexpected errors or conflicts.
References = CISM Review Manual 2022, page 3131; CISM Exam Content Outline, Domain 4, Task 4.42; Practical Patch Management and Mitigation1; Vulnerability and patch management in the CISSP exam3
NEW QUESTION # 608
Which of the following is the MOST important element of an information security strategy?
- A. Adoption of a control framework
- B. Complete policies
- C. Time frames for delivery
- D. Defined objectives
Answer: D
Explanation:
Without defined objectives, a strategy-the plan to achieve objectives-cannot be developed. Time frames for delivery are important but not critical for inclusion in the strategy document.
Similarly, the adoption of a control framework is not critical to having a successful information security strategy. Policies are developed subsequent to, and as a part of, implementing a strategy.
NEW QUESTION # 609
The MOST important reason for formally documenting security procedures is to ensure:
- A. alignment with business objectives.
- B. processes are repeatable and sustainable.
- C. objective criteria for the application of metrics.
- D. auditability by regulatory agencies.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: INFORMATION SECURITY PROGRAM MANAGEMENT
Explanation:
Without formal documentation, it would be difficult to ensure that security processes are performed in the proper manner every time that they are performed. Alignment with business objectives is not a function of formally documenting security procedures. Processes should not be formally documented merely to satisfy an audit requirement. Although potentially useful in the development of metrics, creating formal documentation to assist in the creation of metrics is a secondary objective.
NEW QUESTION # 610
What is the BEST method to confirm that all firewall rules and router configuration settings are adequate?
- A. Daily review of server logs for evidence of hacker activity
- B. Periodic review of network configuration
- C. Periodically perform penetration tests
- D. Review intrusion detection system (IDS) logs for evidence of attacks
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: INFORMATION SECURITY PROGRAM MANAGEMENT
Explanation:
Due to the complexity of firewall rules and router tables, plus the sheer size of intrusion detection systems (IDSs) and server logs, a physical review will be insufficient. The best approach for confirming the adequacy of these configuration settings is to periodically perform attack and penetration tests.
NEW QUESTION # 611
In an organization that has several independent security tools including intrusion detection systems (IDSs) and firewalls, which of the following is the BEST way to ensure timely detection of incidents?
- A. Implement a log aggregation and correlation solution.
- B. Ensure staff are cross trained to manage all security tools.
- C. Ensure that the incident response plan is endorsed by senior management.
- D. Outsource the management of security tools to a service provider.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 612
Which of the following is an information security manager's MOST important consideration during the investigative process of analyzing the hard drive of 3 compromises..
- A. Notifying the relevant stakeholders
- B. Maintaining chain of custody
- C. Identifying the relevant strain of malware
- D. Determining the classification of stored data
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 613
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